Daf Yomi for Women - Hadran

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Yevamot 48 - April 24, 23 Nissan Apr 24, 2022

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The braita stated that the process for conversion is the same for a freed slave as for a convert. The Gemara assumes they meant that a freed slave also needs to accept mitzvot upon immersing in the mikveh. However, this contradicts a braita that states it is unnecessary. Rav Sheshet reconciles this by saying that there is a tannaitic debate on this topic as can be seen in a debate between Rabbi Shimon ben Elazar and the rabbis regarding a female prisoner of war. What is the reason for each of their opinions? Rav Papa questions Rav Sheshet's answer by doubting whether one can learn from a female prisoner of war to a Canaanite slave, as the cases are not the same – since the prisoner came from a place where she was not keeping mitzvot at all, and the slave was. A braita is brought to prove Rav Papa's assertion. The contradiction is resolved in a different manner - instead of explaining the line in the braita that states that conversion for a convert and a slave is the same regarding the acceptance of mitzvot, they explain that they are the same regarding immersion in the mikveh. There are some other tannaitic debates regarding details of what a female prisoner of war needs to go through if a Jewish man wishes to marry her. Does she grow her nails or cut them? Does she cry over her parents or over the idols she is leaving behind? How many days does she cry – 30 or 90? Can one keep Canaanite slaves if they don't do a circumcision? There is a debate on this issue between Rabbi Yishmael and Rabbi Akiva. From what verses in the Torah are their opinions derived? Rabbi Yehoshua ben Levi said that one who purchases a slave from a gentile and doesn't want to be circumcised can be kept for a year but if after a year, he still doesn't want to become circumcised, the owner must sell him back to a gentile. Does this fit only with Rabbi Yishmael's opinion or can it be explained also according to Rabbi Akiva? Ravin said in the name of others that if one purchased a slave under the condition that he not be circumcised, then he can keep him uncircumcised. Does this fit only with Rabbi Yishmael's opinion or can it be explained also according to Rabbi Akiva? Why do converts suffer in the world? The Gemara brings four answers.

Yevamot 47 - Shabbat April 23, 22 Nissan Apr 21, 2022

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Today's daf is sponsored by Devorah Radomsky in honor of her daughter, Elisheva Yehudit on the occasion of her Bat Mitzvah.

Today's daf is sponsored by Yechiel Berkowicz. "In loving memory of my mother Sara F. Berkowicz. She was a holocaust survivor, a fighter, and a strong believer in Jewish education."

Article by Rabbi David Brofsky - The Role of Beit Din and the Immersion of Female Converts

Tshuva by Rabbi Jeffrey Fox

Article by Michal Tikochinsky (in Hebrew)

If someone says they are a convert, do we believe them? What type of proof is necessary and on what does it depend? Is there a difference between conversions in Israel and abroad? One needs to convert in front of a court - one cannot convert on one's own. A case was brought where someone was assumed to be a Jew and then they said they converted on their own. Rabbi Yehuda ruled that they should accept his testimony about himself that he was no longer considered Jewish, but not to mess up his children. The Gemara questions Rabbi Yehuda's ruling based on another ruling of his regarding a father's testimony being accepted to mess up his child. Rav Nachman and Rava each bring different answers to resolve this contradiction. What is the procedure when someone comes forward saying that they wish to convert? First, we try to discourage them – why? But if they persist we accept them – this is derived from Naomi's acceptance of Ruth. How many are needed to be present during the immersion in the mikveh? A Canaanite slave who is freed needs to immerse in a mikveh – but does he need to accept mitzvot when immersing?

Yevamot 46 - 7th Day of Pesach, April 22, 21 Nissan Apr 21, 2022

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Rav said that one who purchases a Canaanite slave from a gentile does not yet have full rights to the slave and therefore if the slave goes to a mikveh for the sake of converting, he is considered a Jew and is freed from slavery. Why? A contradiction is brought, and is resolved. Rav Avia limits this to exclude a case where one purchases the slave directly from the slave himself, but his limitation is questioned. A Canaanite slave needs to go in a mikveh and is circumcised as he becomes part of the household of the Jewish owner. In order to prevent the slave from releasing himself during the process of going to the mikveh, Shmuel suggests doing that when putting him in the mikveh, one needs to make sure to make it clear that there is an owner/slave relationship. When Rabbi Chiya bar Abba came to a particular city, he saw a number of things that people were not doing properly. They had Jewish women impregnated by men who had become circumcised to convert but had not yet gone to the mikveh, Jews were drinking wine poured by gentiles and eating lupines cooked by gentiles. After consulting with Rabbi Yochanan, he reprimanded the people for all these actions. What was problematic about each of them? There is a three-way debate regarding partial acts of conversion – only circumcision, only mikveh – is one considered converted or not? What are the reasons for each opinion? By which opinion do we hold?

Yevamot 45 - April 21, 20 Nissan Apr 21, 2022

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Today's daf is dedicated by Deborah Hoffman-Wade "in grateful appreciation for my 90-year-old mother, Geraldine Hoffman, who gave birth to me 69 years ago today. She continues to be a blessing!"

What is the status of a child born to a non-Jewish father or Canaanite slave and Jewish mother? Is the child a mamzer? Is the child not a mamzer, but disqualified from marrying a kohen? There were different opinions regarding this issue. Rabbi Yochanan said that all agree that the child is a mamzer. To who is he referring when he said "all agree"? First the Gemara suggests Rabbi Shimon Hatimni. But after a question was raised, Rav Yosef explains that it is Rabbi Yehuda Hanasi who ruled that the child is a mamzer. Rabbi Yehoshua ben Levi who permitted this child, held that the child could not marry a kohen. Abaye challenges Rav Yosef by bringing a different tradition regarding Rabbi Yehuda Hanasi in which he rules leniently. A case was brought regarding a female captive who was pregnant. Rabbi Ami wanted to declare the child a mamzer based on the opinions of Rabbi Yochanan, Rabbi Elazar and Rabbi Chanina, but Rav Yosef countered him by saying: If you are holding that way because you have a lot of rabbis who say that, I can provide a longer list of rabbis who disagree - Rav and Shmuel in Babylonia and Rabbi Yehoshua ben Levi and Bar Kapara in Israel. However, Rav Yosef corrected Rabbi Ami by saying we rule the child is a mamzer because Rabbi Yehuda Hanasi ruled that way. Even though Rav did permit such a child to marry a Jew, a certain person (who was born from a non-Jewish father came before Rav and after hearing Rav's ruling to permit, he asked to marry Rav's daughter. But Rav would not agree to this. Rav was criticized for this as he was not willing to act on his word; however, Rav stood strong and explained why he was unwilling. Rav got upset at the one who asked him the question and caused his death. If someone is a half slave/half free man and has a child with a Jewish woman, what is the status of the child? This question was asked to Raba and he answered that the child is not a mamzer. Rav Yosef questioned this by stating that it must be based on Rav Yehuda who rules that a child of a slave and a Jewish woman is not a mamzer, but Rav Yehuda said elsewhere that the child of a half slave/half free man has no solution (meaning, the child is a mamzer). How can the contradiction be resolved? If a slave/gentile has relations with a married woman, is it treated like a married woman (i.e. child is a mamzer) or is there no issue of "married woman" status in relations with a gentile/slave? This is a subject of debate among different rabbis. Rava permitted Rav Meri the son of Rachel and a gentile (who later converted) to be an official in Babylonia as he considered him fully Jewish as it follows the mother. A gentile woman immersed in the mikveh by the slave of Rabbi Chiya bar Ami for purposes of nidda, but Rav Yosef said that it can count for her conversion as well. A few other similar cases are brought.

Yevamot 44 - April 20, 19 Nissan Apr 20, 2022

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Study Guide Yevamot 44

The Mishna explains that if there are four brothers who all die childless, the oldest brother can do yibum with each of their wives. How can one marry four wives – isn't that not financially responsible? One who has two wives, only one of them needs to do yibum or chalitza. From where is this derived? Why wouldn't both be required? Why not just have one do yibum and the other chalitza? Rabbi Akiva holds that one who marries someone who is forbidden by a negative commandment, the child born from that union is a mamzer. The rabbis hold that only when it is a union that is punishable by karet. The example brought in which the rabbis agree that the child is a mamzer is the case of one who marries the relative of their divorcee. The Mishna mentioned that Rabbi Akiva said that one who marries the relative of their chalutza, the child is a mamzer. But isn't that only forbidden by rabbinic law? A suggestion is made to change the text to the relative of their divorcee. The Gemara tries to find support from this from the wording in the Mishna but this proof is rejected. A different answer is brought to explain why Rabbi Akiva says the relative of his chalutza can create a mamzer, as it can be derived from the Torah. Rav Yosef said that all agree that the child born from one who remarries his divorcee after she married someone else in the interim is disqualified from marrying a kohen. Three questions are raised against this – two are answered but one is not. Therefore, Rav Yosef's statement is emended to say that all agree that if a man marries a woman who is forbidden to him by karet, the child cannot marry a kohen. Who is "all" who agree according to Rav Yosef? This is derived from a kal vachomer from a widow.

Yevamot 43 - April 19, 18 Nissan Apr 19, 2022

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Study Guide Yevamot 43

Rabbi Avahu said that whenever there is a Mishna with an unattributed opinion and the same topic has a debate in a braita, we hold by the Mishna. A difficulty is raised against this from an unattributed opinion in a Mishna in Kelim 13:8 and it is a source of debate in a braita and yet, we do not hold like the Mishna. Rabbi Avahu answered that this Mishna was an exception to the rule as Rabbi Yochanan and Reish Lakish both held that the Mishna itself was inaccurate. What about the Mishna was inaccurate? The Gemara suggests a number of possibilities until it found an answer that worked – that the Mishna actually ended with the words "this is Rabbi Shimon's opinion" and therefore was not an unattributed Mishna. There are varying opinions regarding exactly how long the waiting period is for a woman to get betrothed? Does one need three full months or can it be two and a half? If three full months are needed, is the day of death/day of the bethrothal included in the count? Rabbi Yosi said in the Mishna that a widow cannot get engaged immediately because she needs to mourn. A difficulty is raised from laws of Tisha B'av and the days leading up to it as laws of mourning are in effect and yet one can get betrothed. A number of solutions are suggested, some of which emend the text of the Mishna. However, questions are raised against the second emendation of the text. And ultimately all the answers brought are rejected and the difficulty from Tisha B'av is answered by saying there is a tannaitic debate and each source holds by a different opinion. Rav Ashi raises a question on this answer as well and responds by distinguishing between mourning on Tisha B'av and mourning for a dead relative as they are not the same type of mourning.

Yevamot 42 - April 18, 17 Nissan Apr 18, 2022

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If chalitza was performed within the first three months after the husband's death, the woman needs to wait three months before remarrying. Is it three months from the chalitza or from the death? What is the reason why all women need to wait three months before remarrying after death or divorce from their husband? The first explanation is that we want to be able to know who the son belongs to as God presents rests upon those who can trace their lineage. Rava says it is to prevent forbidden marriages – he brings four examples of issues that could arise, such as, marrying one's sister without realizing. Also a convert needs to wait – why? The Gemara tries to figure out why a shorter time period would not have been sufficient. Why can't we use other methods to determine whether or not the woman was pregnant? If we know she is pregnant, she still cannot get married as there is a different issue - that a man cannot marry a pregnant or nursing woman. Why is that prohibited? There were three opinions in the Mishna regarding which women need to wait three months before remarrying. According to which opinion do we hold? Rabbi Yochanan held like Rabbi Yosi who permitted women who were engaged to remarry, but it seems he changed his mind and required all women to wait three months. In what cases does Rabbi Yochanan hold like an unattributed opinion in a Mishna? What are the rules?

Yevamot 41 - April 17, 16 Nissan Apr 17, 2022

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What is the reason why that a man can marry the relative of the tzara of a chalutza but not the tzara of the relative of his chalutza? If a man performs chalitza with his yevama or gets divorced, and his brother marries her sister and dies childless, he cannot do yibum, but is he obligated to perform chalitza with her? If one falls to yibum to two brothers and in the meantime, one betroths her sister, Rabbi Yehuda ben Beteira requires him to wait until the other brother deals with the yevama (does yibum or chalitza) and only then can he marry the sister. Alternatively, if the yevama dies, he can marry his wife. If the other brother dies, he must divorce his wife and perform chalitza with the yevama. A question was asked - what if the betrothed woman died, can he perform yibum with the yevama - is she forbidden to him because she was already forbidden at the time of the betrothal, or since the reason she was forbidden is no longer relevant, can we permit him to perform yibum with her? Rav and Rabbi Chanina permit. Shmuel and Rav Asi forbid. Rav Hamnuna questions Rav from a Mishna (Yevamot 29a) where a yevama was permitted and then forbidden and then remained forbidden. Rav didn't respond to the question. Rava suggests that Rav could have attributed the Mishna to Rabbi Elazar (Yevamot 109a). Can we really line up the opinions of Rabbi Elazar and the rabbis with Rav and Shmuel's opinions here? Are the cases similar or can one distinguish between them? A woman needs to wait three months before yibum or chalitza to make sure she isn't pregnant. Does this apply to all situations or are there exceptions? There is a debate in the Mishna regarding this issue. Why does she need to wait if chalitza is being done? Can this be used to question Rabbi Yochanan's opinion that the chalitza of a pregnant woman is a valid chalitza? The Gemara offers three answers, as the first two are rejected. Who is responsible for mezonot (providing sustenance) for the yevama until such time that yibum/chalitza is performed?

Yevamot 40 - Shabbat, First Day of Pesach, April 16, 15 Nissan Apr 15, 2022

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A braita is brought regarding the leftovers of the meal offering which has a similar structure to the braita on Yevamot 39 regarding the mitzva of yibum. On the yibum braita we had two different interpretations. Which one fits better with the meal offering braita. And how can we read the braita according to the other interpretation? What is the connection between inheritance and yibum? Does the brother who does yibum always inherit the dead brother's property? Does it depend if his father is still alive? Rabbi Yehuda and the rabbis debate this issue. The rabbis forbade one who does chalitza to the relatives of the chalutza and forbade her to his relative, as if they were divorced. Which relatives of each are forbidden to the other? Does this apply to rabbinic relationships that are forbidden?

Yevamot 39 - April 15, 14 Nissan Apr 15, 2022

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Why didn't Abaye question Raba from the ketuba in our Mishna where the woman's family has a non-definitive claim to her money while the yabam has a definitive claim (as the property is in his possession) and yet they split the proceeds according to Beit Shamai? To answer that question, they reread the Mishna and claim that Beit Shamai wasn't relating to that case. Abaye brings a third explanation of the two parts of the Mishna by distinguishing between when the property came to the woman. The first part is referring to property given to her when she was waiting for yibum, therefore the yabam has no claim to the property. The second was referring to property that was given to her when she was married to the first husband, which would then go by default to the yabam upon the husband's death. According to Abaye, the debate between Beit Shamai and Beit Hillel regards whether or not the husband's hand is considered like the wife's hand in her possession or is it stronger than the wife's hand. The yabam's hand will always be weaker than the original husband - if so, he will either have as much power as the woman or less. Rava beings a fourth explanation of the Mishna - the first part is when the yabam did not yet do maamar and in the second part he did do maamar. Those who agree/disagree with Rava each have different understandings of Beit Shamai's position regarding maamar - did Beit Shamai just say it was strong enough to exempt her relative (i.e. if her sister fell to yibum to the yabam that she did maamar with). Or is it strong enough to give him rights to her property? Rav Papa thinks that the Mishna fits best with Abaye's reading, except for the fact that the second part is about the woman dying when it could have easily brought the case of her still alive and regarding the produce. The Mishna stated that she is his wife for all intents and purposes - for what purposes? Why is this necessary to have been mentioned? Ideally the oldest brother should do yibum. But if he does not, the court asks each of the brothers. In the event that no one wants to do it, the court goes back to the oldest brother and requires him to do it. One does not wait for a brother who is not available at present to do yibum if there are others to do it. There are two versions of a dispute between Rabbi Yochanan and Rabbi Yehoshua ben Levi. The first version is if there is a younger brother who will do yibum or an older brother who will do chalitza, which is preferable. In the second version, all agree that a younger brother who will do yibum is preferable, but the debate is regarding chalitza - is there a preference for the older brother or is he and a younger brother equal if they are only doing chalitza? Our Mishna is brought according to each version to try to prove on or the other opinion but all attempts are unsuccessful. A Mishan is Bechorot 13a states that originally yibum was preferable, but now chalitza is preferable as people are not doing yibum with the intention of the mitzva. Rav stills holds, though, that the choice is up to the brother and we do not force him to do chalitza. Rami bar Hama holds that the law changed yet again and yibum is ideal. Why? The Gemara explains his position that they originally held like Abba Shaul that one cannot perform yibum unless one only intends to perform the mitzva, but not because he finds her beautiful or just wishes to marry her. But then they held like the rabbis who permitted yibum in any case. A braita is brought that is explained in two different ways - one way to match Abba Shaul and the other to match the rabbis.

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